ISEB ISEB-PM1 : Foundation Certificate in Project Management Exam Dumps

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Exam Number : ISEB-PM1
Exam Name : Foundation Certificate in Project Management
Vendor Name : ISEB
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ISEB-PM1 Exam Format | ISEB-PM1 Course Contents | ISEB-PM1 Course Outline | ISEB-PM1 Exam Syllabus | ISEB-PM1 Exam Objectives

Exam ID : ISEB-PM1

Exam Title : BCS Foundation Certificate in IS Project Management

Questions : 40

Pass Marks : 26

Duration : 1 hour

Exam Type : multiple-choice

This certificate is appropriate for anyone involved in or affected by IT projects; this extends to users, buyers and directors.
Candidates will be able to demonstrate and execute an understanding of the principles of project management in their organisation, including an understanding of:

Project planning

Monitoring and control

Change control and configuration management

Effort estimation

Quality and risk management

Communication between project stakeholders


Candidates who pass the Foundation Certificate should be able to demonstrate an understanding of the principles of project management, including those that relate to project planning, monitoring and control, change control and configuration management, effort estimation, quality and risk management and communication between project stakeholders.

1. Projects and Project Work

 The definition of projects, as opposed to other types of work

 Terms of reference for a project

 The purpose of project planning and control

 The typical activities in a system development life-cycle

 System and project life cycles

 Variations on the conventional project life cycle, such as the use of prototypes or an iterative approach (e.g. the creation and testing of a series of versions of a product that converge on the final deliverable) or incremental approach (i.e. the phased creation and delivery of a series of products to users)

 Implementation strategies e.g. parallel running, ‘sudden death, use of pilots

 Purpose and content of business case reports; the use and significance of discounted cash flows in such reports (Note: knowledge of the method of calculation is NOT required)

 Types of planning document: project initiation documents; project and stage plans, quality plan, communications plan, risk plan

 Post implementation review

2. Project Planning

Note: candidates are expected to have an understanding of both the product and activity based approaches to planning

 Project deliverables and intermediate products

 Work and product breakdowns

 Product definitions (including the identification of derived from, and component of relationships between products)

 Relationship between products and activities in a project

 Check points and milestones

 Lapsed time and effort required for activities

 Activity networks (using ‘activity on node notation)

 Calculation of earliest and latest start and end dates of activities and resulting float

 Identification and significance of critical paths

 Resource allocation, smoothing and levelling, including the use of resource histograms

 Work schedules and Gantt charts

3. Monitoring and Control

 The project control life cycle: including planning, monitoring achievement, identifying variances, taking corrective action

 The nature of, and the purposes for which, information is gathered

 Collecting progress information

- Timesheets,

- Team progress meetings

- Error and change reports etc

 Presenting progress information

- Content of progress reports

- Graphical presentation of progress information e.g. accumulative resource charts (also known as S-curve charts)

- Use of earned value analysis, including where it would be applied in project life-cycle (Note: it is not expected that candidates be able to calculate and interpret earned value figures)

 The reporting cycle

- Reporting structures in projects

- Timing, personnel and purpose of different types of reporting meetings

 Corrective action

- Tolerance and contingency

- Exception reports and plans

- Management procedures involved in changing plans

- Options, including extending or staggering deadlines, increasing resources, reducing Functionality or quality requirements, cancelling the project etc.

4. Change Control and Configuration Management

 Reasons for change and configuration management

 Change control procedures

- Role of change control boards

- Generation of change requests

- Change request evaluation (e.g. its impact on the business case)

- Change request authorisation

 Configuration management

- Purpose and procedures

- Identification of configuration items

- Product baselines

- Configuration management databases: content and use

5. Quality

 Definitions of the term ‘quality e.g. ‘fitness for purpose

 Quality control versus quality assurance

 Defining quality: definition and measurement

 Detection of defects during the project life cycle

 Quality procedures: entry, process and exit requirements

 Defect removal processes, including testing and reviews

 Types of testing (including unit, integration, user acceptance, and regression testing)

 The inspection process, peer reviews

 Principles of IS0 9001:2000 quality management systems

 Supplier evaluation

6. Estimating

 Effects of over and under-estimating

 Effort versus duration; relationship between effort and cost

 Estimates versus targets

 Use of expert judgement (advantages and disadvantages)

 The Delphi approach

 Top-down estimating

- Identification of size drivers (e.g. function points etc)

- Identification of productivity rates (e.g. function points per day)

- Need for past project data to establish productivity rates

- Factors affecting productivity rates (e.g. staff experience)

- Estimation of effort for new projects using productivity rates and size drivers

 Bottom up approaches to estimating

 Use of analogy in estimating

7. Risk

 Definition of the term ‘risk; components of risk: risk events (or triggers), probability, impact

 Ways of categorising risk, e.g. business versus project

 Identification and prioritisation of risk

 Assessment of risk exposure (i.e. combining consideration of potential damage and probability of loss)

 Risk responses and actions: risk prevention, reduction, acceptance, transfer and contingency planning

 Typical risks associated with information systems development

 Assessment of the costs/benefits of risk reduction activities

 Maintenance of risk registers and risk logs

8. Project Communications and Project Organisation

 Relationship between programmes and projects

 Identifying stakeholders and their concerns

 The project sponsor

 Establishment of the project authority (e.g. project board, steering committee etc.)

 Membership of project board/steering committee

 Roles and responsibilities of project board, project manager, stage manager, team leader

 Desirable characteristics of project manager

 Role of project support office

 The project team and matrix management

 Reporting structures and responsibilities

 Management styles and communication (including same time/same place; same time/different place, different time/same place, different time/different place)

 Team building (including phases of team cohesion e.g. forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning)

 Team dynamics

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  • Qualifications

  • Qualifications: Testing qualification ISTQB/ISEB. Advanced ISTQB advantageous
  • Degree in BSC/ IT preferred/Diploma in Information Technology
  • Working experience in testing Android, iOS and Web apps, general QA landscape, architectures, trends, and emerging technologies.
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    1. Name the component of blood that fights infection?

    Ans. WBC (White Blood Cells)

    2. In which Indian state is Chauri Chaura village located?

    Ans. Uttar Pradesh

    3. What do you mean by "Proxima d"?

    Ans. It is a new Exo-Planet.

    4.  The Crimson Rose belongs to which species?

    Ans. Butterfly

    5. Where is the headquarter of the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) located?

    Ans. Nairobi, Kenya

    6. When was United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) established?

    Ans.  5 June 1972

    7. Name the elements that make up the xylem tissue?

    Ans. Xylem tissue consists of four types of elements namely tracheids, vessels, xylem fibres, and xylem parenchyma.

    8. Where is Hemis National Park situated?

    Ans. Hemis National Park is located in Jammu and Kashmir State.

    9. What is  “Kilonova”?

    Ans. It is a transient astronomical event that occurs in a compact binary system when two neutron stars and a black hole merge into each other. They are thought to emit short gamma-ray bursts and strong electromagnetic radiation due to the radioactive decay of heavy r-process nuclei that are produced and ejected fairly isotropically during the merger process.

    10. When was Bhagat Singh executed?

    Ans. 23 March 1931

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    11. Name the first English President of the Indian National Congress?

    Ans. George Yule was the first English President of the Indian National Congress.

    12. Name the tissue that forms the inner lining of the mouth?

    Ans. Epithelial tissue

    13. What is the function of Ligament?

    Ans. Ligament is a type of connective tissue that connects one bone to another. These tissues are strong and elastic.

    14. Who founded the Mauryan Empire?

    Ans. Chandragupta Maurya founded the Mauryan Empire.

    15. Nalanda University was destroyed by whom?

    Ans. Bakhtiyar Khilji destroyed Nalanda University in 1193.

    16. In which year did Arundhati Roy win the Booker Prize?

    Ans. In 1997, Arundhati Roy won the Booker Prize. She was the first Indian to win the Booker Prize. The title of the novel for which she won the Booker Prize is "The God of Small Things".

    17. What is the relationship between the weight of an object on the moon and the weight of an object on Earth?

    Ans. The moon weighs one-sixth the weight of the Earth.

    18. What is the major source of minerals in the soil?

    Ans. Parent rock from which soil is covered is the major source of minerals in the soil.

    19. Freedom of speech and expression is mentioned in which article of the Indian Constitution?

    Ans. Article 19

    20. In which year did the "Guarantee System" start?

    Ans. In 1849, the "Guarantee system" for Rail Network development in India was started.

    21. Which gas is filled in an electric bulb?

    Ans. Nitrogen gas is filled in an electric bulb.

    22. When is International Women's Day celebrated?

    Ans. Every year on 8 March, International Women's Day is celebrated.

    23. What was the first vernacular newspaper in India?

    Ans. Samachar Darpan was the first vernacular newspaper in India. It was a Bengali weekly newspaper published by the Baptist Missionary Society.

    24. Which Sikh Guru introduced the Gurmukhi Script?

    Ans. As per the Sikh tradition, Gurmukhi was invented by Guru Angad, who was the second Sikh Guru in the mid-16th century.

    25. In which state of India is the Hornbill festival observed?

    Ans. Nagaland

    26. Which continent was not part of Gondwana Land?

    Ans. Europe

    27. What are Barchans?

    Ans. Crescent-shaped sand dunes

    28. What kind of climatic condition exists in the Indian Desert?

    Ans. A hot and dry climate with scanty rainfall

    29. Name the biggest waterfall in India.

    Ans. Kunchikal falls

    30. Which is the largest river basin in India?

    Ans. The Ganga Basin

    31. Mention any three Himalayan river system

    Ans. Indus, Ganges and Brahamputra

    32. What is the outermost part of a flower called?

    Ans. Sepal

    33. Saffron is derived from which flower?

    Ans. Crocus

    34. Which flowers can replace onions as a spice in cooking?

    Ans. Tulips

    35. Banana plants are related to which flowers?

    Ans. Birds of Paradise

    36. Which flower juice is used to make glue in the past?

    Ans. Bluebell Flower

    37. After whom Magnolias were named?

    Ans. Pierre Magnolia

    38. Which flower takes necessary nutrients from the air rather than soil?

    Ans. Orchid

    39. What are the male parts of flowers called?

    Ans. Stamens

    40. What are the female parts of flowers called?

    Ans. Carpels

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    29. In which of the following countries are the Kermadec Islands located? 

    A. FranceB. UKC. New ZealandD. None of the above

    Ans. C

    30. In which of the following state of India Bhitarkanika National Park is situated?

    A. RajasthanB. OdishaC. NagalandD. Tamil Nadu

    Ans. B

    31. Which of the following Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Andhra Pradesh?

    A. Mahao Wildlife SanctuaryB. Kamlang Wildlife SanctuaryC. Amchang Wildlife SanctuaryD. Sonai Rupai Wildlife Sanctuary

    Ans. A

    32. In which of the following state of India, Bellandur Lake is situated?

    A. BengaluruB. ManipurC. SikkimD. Maharashtra

    Ans. A

    33. For which of the following movies has Chloe Zhao been conferred with the Oscar Award?

    A.The FatherB. MinariC. NomadlandD. Soul

    Ans. C

    34. In which of the following year the Environment Protection Act enacted?

    A. 1984B. 1986C. 1989D. 1990

    Ans. B

    35. What is Light?

    A. Longitudinal WaveB. Transverse WaveC. Both A and BD. Neither A nor B

    Ans. B

    36. Which of the following country has the highest total number of Military Personnel?

    A. VietnamB. South KoreaC. IndiaD. North Korea

    Ans. A (As per the data of the world population review 2022)

    37. What is the capital of Ukraine?

    A. Kyiv (Kiev)B. YerevanC. CanberraD. Moscow

    Ans. A

    38. In which of the following Indian states do the Varuna and Assi rivers flow?

    A. Uttar PradeshB. MaharashtraC. RajasthanD. Madhya Pradesh

    Ans. A

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    39. In which of the following years was Bangladesh formed as a separate country?

    A. 1970

    B. 1971

    C. 1972

    D. 1973

    Ans. B

    40. Which of the following rivers is known as the "father of African rivers"?

    A. NigerB. NileC. Orange riverD. Kasai river

    Ans. B

    41. Which of the following battles were fought by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj?

    A. Battle of KolhapurB. Battle of PratapgadC. Battle of SinhagadD. All the above

    Ans. D

    42. When was Champaran Satyagraha started?

    A. 1916

    B. 1917

    C. 1920

    D. 1921

    Ans. B

    43. When was Gandhi-Irwin Pact signed?

    A. 1928B. 1930C. 1931D. 1935

    Ans. C

    44. Abiy Ahmed is the Prime Minister of which country?

    A. EthiopiaB. EritreaC. KenyaD. None of the above

    Ans. A

    45. Second Buddhist Council was presided by whom?

    A. Gautamiputra SatkarniB. VasumitraC. SabakamiD. None of the above

    Ans. C

    46. What is the name of the Guptas' silver coin?

    A. ParaB. RupakaC. DinaraD. None of the above

    Ans. B

    47. In which of the following states is Umlingla Pass located?

    A. A. UttarakhandB. ManipurC. SikkimD. Ladakh

    Ans. D

    48. Who founded the Ram Cult in Northern India?

    A. KabirB. RamanandaC. BhavabhutiD. Guru Nanak

    Ans. B

    49. Which of the following is not a folk dance of Himachal Pradesh?

    A. JhoraB. ChharhiC. ChhapeliD. Panwariya

    And. D

    50. Who gave the most detailed accounts of all historic descriptions of the ancient city of Hampi?

    A. Fernao NunizB. Domingo PaesC. Ibn BatutaD. Abdur Razzaq

    Ans. B

    51. Who is the author of the 'Durgeshnandini' novel?

    A. Bankim Chandra ChattopadhyayB. Baliram Keshav Rao HedgewarC. Barindra Kumar GhoshD. Behramji M Malabari 

    Ans. A

    52. Who is known as the 'Grand Old Man of lndia'?

    A. Dr Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar B. Dr Rajendra Prasad C. Dadabhai Naoroji D. Gopal Krishna Gokhale

    Ans. C

    53. Who is popularly known as Loknayak?

    A. Jamnalal Bajaj B. Jayaprakash NarayanaC. Jatindra Nath DasD. Khudiram Bose

    Ans. B

    54. Who is known as the "Father of the Indian Constitution"? 

    a) Mahatma Gandhi 

    b) Jawaharlal Nehru 

    c) B.R. Ambedkar 

    d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel 

    Answer: c) B.R. Ambedkar

    55. Which of the following is the upper house of the Indian Parliament?

    a) Lok Sabha 

    b) Rajya Sabha 

    c) Legislative Assembly 

    d) President House 

    Answer: b) Rajya Sabha

    56. Who has the power to declare a national emergency in India? 

    a) President of India 

    b) Prime Minister of India 

    c) Chief Justice of India

    d) Governor of the respective state 

    Answer: a) President of India

    57. How many Fundamental Rights are guaranteed to Indian citizens in the Constitution of India? 

    a) 4 

    b) 7 

    c) 10 

    d) 14 

    Answer: d) 14

    58. The Right to Information (RTI) Act was enacted in the year: 

    a) 2002 

    b) 2005 

    c) 2010 

    d) 2014 

    Answer: b) 2005

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